AHC/PC: Can the Statute of the Jewry 1275 be made to work?

The English Statute of the Jewry 1275 prohibited Jews from lending money at interest or taking mortgages on land - which in England, as in much of the rest of medieval Europe, had been their chief commercial activity up to that time - but permitted them to work as merchants, craftsmen and laborers or to lease farmland for up to ten years. Jews were also permitted to interact with Christians for the purpose of commerce, although Christians were not to dwell among them. Opinions vary as to the intent of the law, but the consensus (and the opinion that makes most sense) appears to be that King Edward wanted to placate the nobles and merchants who were resentful of their debts to Jews while preserving the Jewish community as an economically viable entity that he could tax.

If so, it didn't work out that way. Jews were now legally entitled to pursue livelihoods other than moneylending, but they were prevented from doing so by other obstacles. For one thing, they still couldn't employ Christian workers. For another, they were blocked from being merchants by municipal restrictions limiting the markets to burgesses and from being craftsmen because the guilds that controlled craft work wouldn't admit non-Christian members. For a third, prevailing anti-Semitic attitudes meant that few Christians were willing to hire them as laborers or rent them land. And for a fourth, the ways that the statute continued to keep Jews apart - for instance, reaffirming the requirement that they wear a yellow badge and requiring them to live only in certain towns - enforced their separation from Christians and limited their ability to look for work in other parts of the country.

As a result, English Jews continued to practice moneylending in disguised forms, and were easily tempted into crimes such as coin-clipping (in 1278-79, every Jewish head of household in England was arrested for clipping coins, with some being hanged and others being imprisoned until they paid ransom). Eventually, in 1290, the Jews of England ran out of money, and since they were no longer useful to the royal treasury, the king expelled them.

The question is whether a better-thought-out Statute of the Jewry might work. It wouldn't be unheard-of for Jews in medieval Europe to make a living through craft work or even farming; they did this in other places, and some of the German and Italian states protected their right to do so. But the English monarchy wasn't going to allow Jews to be burgesses - that would compromise their status as, essentially, royal property - and had limited power to coerce the guilds to admit Jews. Might it have been possible to do an end run around these restrictions by legislating that municipal markets must allow Jewish merchants whether or not burgesses, and that certain crafts (more than likely the ones with the politically weakest guilds) would be open to non-guild members? Failing that, could some of the Jewish social restrictions be relaxed - that would be hard to do given that the Jewish badge and the ban on Jews employing Christians were canon law at the time, but some other cities and feudal domains did resist them?

Assuming that a better-crafted statute (a) would be politically possible, and (b) would keep the English Jews economically viable, what then? The Black Death is scheduled for the mid-14th century and was the catalyst for some of the most murderous anti-Semitism in OTL Europe, with many Jewish communities being massacred or expelled. Would this result in the expulsion of Jews from England as well, two generations later than OTL? Or would the Jews be able to stay longer as they did in Iberia, with the Hundred Years' War (and later the Wars of the Roses, assuming they aren't butterflied) playing a role similar to the wars of the Reconquista in ensuring that the monarchy continued to need them? Might the relatively small Jewish community of England even experience an influx of expellees from France and the German states during the 14th century, jump-starting its (IOTL relatively minor) intellectual life? How would they play into the struggles of the 15th and 16th centuries and, in general, what might be the effect of a continuous Jewish presence in the English-speaking world?
 
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which in England, as in much of the rest of medieval Europe, had been their chief commercial activity up to that time
I don't know for medieval England, altough I tend to think it's more true there than for the rest of Europe, but the social-geopgraphical separations of Jeweries in medieval Europe was far less clear-cut than this : Jewish-owned and worked wineries, for instance, are known in southern France in the same period, and remained a thing in Provence until the XVth/XVIth (in a reduced and regional matter, of course.

The economical role of Jews tends to be a bit exagerated, especially in money-lending : not that Jewish communauties weren't involved, but many Jewish names tends to be front names for perfectly Christian businessmen as well.
Jewish role in economy was real, mostly because we're talking of organised communauties keeping ties with each other, sort of an "international" or more realistically regional network. But they weren't characterised by that.

The main problem regarding the status of Jews in XIIth century Europe, and afterwards, was their canonical treatment as heretics since the Council of Latran in 1215. It had deep political and cultural impacts, even if the tendencies that led to a violent anti-judaic medieval stance preceded it (blood libels narratives, XIth forced conversions and mob violence, etc.), with the general abandomnent of the status Jews had since late Roman times.

Not only dialogue or exchange with Jewish communities was deemed wrong if it didn't involved the submission or their humilation (before the XIIth, religious debates were relatively balanced. Then not only there's none, but there's book burning rising dramatically), but Jews were considered to belong to the secular (there royal) authority (Iudai Nostri), rather than being acknowledged as their own communities within a realm (as you had, among famous exemples, with Ben Todros' "principalty" in Narbonne).

It med their resilience face to a royal power that was treating them as political/economical assets, significantly weakened.
As you said, they were both convenient scapegoats : kings had no real use to crack down of them because they were their men and their property so to speak. But, to quote Gilbert Dahan : the seniorial attitude [to Jews] was the same one have to their property. You defend it dearly, but when it's useless, you give it up.
Not that mere economical interest guided them, as the revival of Roman law was accompanied from a legalist mindset in early bureaucratic state in western Europe, mixed up with the revival of piety in the same period (see Louis IX of France).

Having a better tought statutes may make the sittuation less stressing socially, culturally and economically for English Jews, but I simply don't see it really lasting, as the point of statutes was not really to find a clear settlement, but to defranchise Jews as communities.

So to speak, the status isn't a cause, but a symptom of violent anti-judaism in the XIIIth century onwards. There might be PoDs to weaken this tendency, but this late? I don't really think it's doable, and you'll be stuck with the mantra of expulsion of many Jews (with some communities somehow surviving), return in relatively small numbers, re-expulsion, return in fewer numbers, etc.
 
I don't know for medieval England, altough I tend to think it's more true there than for the rest of Europe, but the social-geopgraphical separations of Jeweries in medieval Europe was far less clear-cut than this : Jewish-owned and worked wineries, for instance, are known in southern France in the same period, and remained a thing in Provence until the XVth/XVIth (in a reduced and regional matter, of course.

Fair enough: not all Jewish communities had been pushed out of regular commerce in the late 13th century, and the older and more established ones in southern France and Iberia were a different story from the newer ones in England and many of the German states. The Jewish community in England was established as a financier community to begin with and still was one in 1275.

The main problem regarding the status of Jews in XIIth century Europe, and afterwards, was their canonical treatment as heretics since the Council of Latran in 1215. It had deep political and cultural impacts, even if the tendencies that led to a violent anti-judaic medieval stance preceded it (blood libels narratives, XIth forced conversions and mob violence, etc.), with the general abandomnent of the status Jews had since late Roman times.

This is true but it wasn't universally enforced in 13th or even 14th century Europe - some cities were more lax than others in enforcing the Jewish badges and restrictive laws, and some communities were allowed to buy exceptions or to play municipal and feudal authorities against each other as at Marseilles. The Jews of Marseilles actually expanded their occupational rights in the 14th century. The hardened religious attitude toward Jews usually did translate into less willingness to let Jews live and work among Christians, especially on anything like cordial terms, but it didn't always do so.

Is there room for England to work out more like Marseilles? If the English Jews can buy themselves another couple of generations via a more workable 1275 statute, could they form alliances in Parliament as that body gains in power and play it off against the king? Alternatively, as mentioned above, would they be able to buy exemptions from the Lateran laws by financing the Hundred Years' War and thereby reducing the king's need to call Parliament into session in the first place? A 14th-century king in need of money and wary of giving the upper class a chance to increase its power might be willing to make quite a few concessions. It seems that if the Jews of England can make it to the mid-14th century rather than being expelled at the end of the 13th, the political situation at that time would allow for opportunities that didn't exist in 1275-90.
 
The Jewish community in England was established as a financier community to begin with and still was one in 1275.
True, true. As I said, I tend to agree with this for medieval England (while much less so for the rest of Europe), but I'd just make a caveat as we know better about the financial activities of English Jews as they were dependent from royal power really early on, and most of their interactions with it was on an economical base (trade, but essentially financial loan, if not extortion).

This is true but it wasn't universally enforced in 13th or even 14th century Europe - some cities were more lax than others in enforcing the Jewish badges and restrictive laws, and some communities were allowed to buy exceptions or to play municipal and feudal authorities against each other as at Marseilles.
It's true : the seniorial (would it be royal, princely, ecclesiastical or urban) power and attitude towards their Jews was particularily changing from place to place, and from time to time, depending on the local situation. I'd stress, tough, that the main universal effect was to weaken Jewish communities as institutional members of overall medieval societies : you're right to point that Provencal Jews remained particularily structurated and dynamic (up to keeping, at least for the XIVth and XVth, nacim at their head), but there's more at work than just different attitudes.
Mediterranean Gaul and France was one the the chief centers of medieval Judaism, second only (and not by that far) to Spain. I won't do a name dump, but Kalonymoi, Tibbonids,Khimi, etc. influence and power (from their religious, cultural, political* and financial situation) underlines the Jewish presence in Languedoc and Provence.

Provence itself was less touched by the aformentioned violent anti-juadic drive (very roughly, more south, more late to really appear), beneficing from reinforcement from Langudeoc communities due to Capetian policies, the particularily lax authority of Angevins, the huge municipal autonomy and the proximity of papacy (which, in spite of Latran, represented a natural protector for Jeweries).

That in late medieval Provence, Jews beneficied from mostly-equal legal rights to Christians (to be tempered with the factual situation) including in everyday life*, was the result of the conjunction of a long and strong local presence since the Late Antiquity, a relatively unfocused and really divided local power, and pontifical presence which were added to a (relatively so) traditional cultural opening in the region. (That said, the aformentioned ownership of Jews is still to be found, albeit in more relaxed forms).

*Some of these nacim claimed a davidic ascendency.
** Jewish holidays being acknowledged, for exemple.


On the other hand, Jews in England formed a lesser community, more recent, and tied to royal good will and protection (IIRC) ever since they settled in the island. I'm not sure, but I could be convinced otherwise admittedly (I do have only a passing knowledge of Norman and Plantagenêt England), that in the lack of proper inner protectors (would it be quasi-independent republics as in Marseilles; bishops; or vassal princes), what was a peripherical community that felt the first damages of violent anti-judaism in the XIIth, would have been well placed to enjoy freedoms as Provencal Jews did.
I do not say that they couldn't have bought exemptions, that the Satutes couldn't have a bit more worked, etc. But...

I guess I'd wait for more informations, from people more knowledgable than me about medieval England, to be definitive.
 
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